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SAFe Agile Software Engineer (ASE)

  • Exam Number/Code : SAFe-ASE
  • Exam Name : SAFe Agile Software Engineer (ASE)
  • Questions and Answers : 213 Q&As
  • Update Time: 2019-01-10
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NEW QUESTION: 1
Which setup is required to ensure that the same tax is applied on both intercompany payable and intercompany receivable invoices?
A. Same tax rate code must be populated in Intercompany System Options for both Payables and Receivables invoices.
B. Intercompany invoicing must be enabled in Receivables System Options.
C. Intercompany invoicing must be enabled in Payables Invoice Options.
D. Receiver and provider business units and legal entities must be subscribed to the applicable tax regime on the transaction date.
Answer: D

NEW QUESTION: 2
A newly hired CIO has been told the enterprise has an established IT governance process, but finds it is not being followed. To address this problem, the CIO should FIRST
A. establish personal relationships with executive-level peers to leverage goodwill,
B. gain an understanding of the existing governance process and corporate culture.
C. engage audit to review current governance processes and validate the ClO's concerns.
D. replace the current governance process with one the CIO has successfully used before.
Answer: B

NEW QUESTION: 3
Donaghy Management Company (DMC) manages several funds only available to high net worth individuals. In preparation for an upcoming meeting, the firm has circulated among its managers the information in Figure 1 on objectives and market expectations relevant to each of three funds.
Figure 1: Fund Strategies and Market Expectations

The manager of Fund A has collected data on put and call options on the broad market index underlying his strategy. The option data are presented in Figure 2. All options presented have the same expiration date.
Figure 2: Option Data for the Broad Market Index

During the meeting, the manager of Fund B states that in order to enhance returns for the fund, he intends to implement a box-spread strategy. The manager explains the strategy by stating, "The ending price of the asset underlying the box-spread strategy has no impact on the payoff of the strategy.
Thus, if the market price of the strategy implies a rate of return greater than the risk-free rate, an arbitrage opportunity exists." Also during the meeting, DMC's president questioned the manager of Fund C about the mechanics of his hedging strategy. The manager explained the strategy with the following comments:
Comment 1: "The hedge position is established to reduce the exposure to certain equity positions by writing call options on those equity positions. The necessary number of short option positions per share of stock held is calculated as the inverse of the option delta." Comment 2: "The hedge position only requires adjusting in the event of a price or volatility change in the underlying and is effective for small changes in the price of the underlying security." In 110 days, the manager of Fund B expects to borrow $50,000,000 for 180 days at a rate of 180-day LIBOR plus 150 bp to pursue a leveraged strategy. LIBOR is currently 6.5%. The manager purchases an interest rate call on 180-day LIBOR that expires in 110 days with a premium of $120,000 and exercise rate of 6%. If LIBOR at the option expiration is 7.3%, calculate the effective annual rate on the loan.
A. 8.80%.
B. 7.30%.
C. 8.29%.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
First, calculate the payoff of the option at expiration:
notional principal x max(0, underlying race at expiration - exercise rate)(days in underlying rate / 360)
50,000,000 x max(0, 0.073 - 0.06)(180/360) = 325,000
Next, calculate the compounded value of the option premium:
option premium[l + (current LIBOR + spread)(days until option expiration / 360)]
120,000[1 + (0.065 * 0.015X110/360)] = 122,933
Next, calculate the effective loan proceeds:
loan proceeds - compounded value of option premium
50,000,000 - 122,933 = 49,877,067
Next, calculate the interest on the loan taken in 110 days:
loan proceeds (underlying rate at option expiration + spread) (days in underlying rate / 360)
50,000,000(0.073 + 0.015X180/360) = 2,200,000
Finally, calculate the effective annual interest rate on the loan:

If the manager had not utilized the interest rate option, the rate on the loan would have been 8.8% = 7.3%
+ 1.5%. (Study Session 15, LOS 43.b)