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NEW QUESTION: 1
Section A (1 Mark)
An aggressive asset allocation would contain larger proportions of __________ than a conservative allocation.
A. Bonds
B. Bonds and large-cap stocks
C. Small-cap and international stocks
D. Cash and bonds
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section C (4 Mark)
Ms. Nimita Shah, aged 34 years as on 2nd April 2010, is Vice President in a Mumbai-based firm. She has twin daughters Revati and Savitri of age 12 years and she is the sole guardian of her children pursuant to her recent divorce. She is currently residing in a rented house. Both her daughter are studying in the 6th Standard. She has approached you, a CWM, for preparing her Wealth plan. She has shared the following financial information with you:


You, in consultation with Nimita have crystallized the following financial goals for her family and the preliminary roadmap to achieve them:
1.Send both daughters to a Boarding school - immediately - Outlay Rs. 1.80 lakh (present cost) per child p.a.
- for 6 years - To be met on year to year basis by investing a suitable corpus.
2.Buy a house-in the next three years - Outlay of Rs. 80 lakh - Take a loan for 15 year term.
3.Invest suitably for the Higher Education of both children - Higher Education starts after 6 years - present cost Rs. 4.5 lakh p.a. for each child for a team of 5 year.
4.To invest monthly for Revati and Savtri's wedding when they complete 24 years of age. The estimated present cost of one such marriage is Rs. 15 Lakh
5.Retirement Corpus for self - Corpus to be accumulated in 21 years - Corpus to sustain an annuity of Rs.
1.25 lakh p.m. (current cost) inflation linked for a post - retirement life of 25 years.
6.A world tour with both of her kids - After 11 years - outlay of Rs. 8 lakh at current prices.
7.A suitable Estate Planning to cover all her physical and financial assets.
Assumptions:

NEW QUESTION: 2
A 16-year-old client with a diagnosis of oppositional defiant disorder is threatening violence toward another child. In managing a potentially violent client, the nurse:
A. Should apply full restraints until the behavior is under control
B. Should allow other clients to observe the acting out so that they can learn from the experience
C. Should put the client in seclusion until he promises to behave appropriately
D. Must use the least restrictive measure possible to control the behavior
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) This answer is correct. Least restrictive measures should always be attempted before a client is placed in seclusion or restraints. The nurse should first try a calm verbal approach, suggest a quiet room, or request that the client take "time-out" before placing the client in seclusion, givingmedication as necessary, or restraining.
(B) This answer is incorrect. A calm verbal approach or requesting that a client go to his room should be attempted before restraining. (C) This answer is incorrect. Restraints should be applied only after all other measures fail to control the behavior. (D) This answer is incorrect. Other clients should be removed from the area. It is often very anxiety producing for other clients to see a peer out of control. It could also lead to mass acting- out behaviors.

NEW QUESTION: 3
A user is building a security policy using the Deployment Wizard and the Rapid Deployment application template. By default, which settings will be applied to the security policy? (Choose three.)
A. The Attack signature set applied will be Generic Detection Signatures.
B. The enforcement mode will be set to transparent.
C. Data Guard will be enabled.
D. The encoding language will be set to auto detect.
E. Wildcard tightening will be enabled on file types and parameters.
Answer: A,B,C

NEW QUESTION: 4
What is the purpose of the Clean-up Rule?
A. To clean up policies found inconsistent with the compliance blade reports.
B. To eliminate duplicate log entries in the Security Gateway
C. To log all traffic that is not explicitly allowed or denied in the Rule Base.
D. To remove all rules that could have a conflict with other rules in the database.
Answer: C