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NEW QUESTION: 1

A. Option B
B. Option C
C. Option E
D. Option D
E. Option A
Answer: A,E
Explanation:
Explanation
Stateful inspection monitors incoming and outgoing packets over time, as well as the state of the connection, and stores the data in dynamic state tables. This cumulative data is evaluated, so that filtering decisions would not only be based on administrator-defined rules, but also on context that has been built by previous connections as well as previous packets belonging to the same connection.
Entries are created only for TCP connections or UDP streams that satisfy a defined security policy.
In order to prevent the state table from filling up, sessions will time out if no traffic has passed for a certain period. These stale connections are removed from the state table.
Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Stateful_firewall

NEW QUESTION: 2
What is an advantage of using OSPF instead of RIPv2?
A. OSPF has a higher hop-count value.
B. It does not have the problem of count to infinity.
C. OSPF includes bandwidth information in the distance vector.
D. OSPF uses DUAL for optimal shortest path calculation.
Answer: B

NEW QUESTION: 3
あなたの会社は、AWSリソースをホストするAWSを計画しています。すべてのセキュリティキーは企業内で完全に管理することを義務付ける企業ポリシーがあります。次のうち、このポリシーに従う正しい尺度はどれですか？
選んでください：
A. AWSに付属のEC2キーペアを使用する
B. puttygenを使用してEC2インスタンスのキーペアを生成する
C. S3サーバー側暗号化を使用
D. キーの作成にAWS KMSサービスを使用し、その後キーのライフサイクルを管理する会社。
Answer: B
Explanation:
y ensuring that you generate the key pairs for EC2 Instances, you will have complete control of the access keys.
Options A,C and D are invalid because all of these processes means that AWS has ownership of the keys. And the question specifically mentions that you need ownership of the keys For information on security for Compute Resources, please visit the below URL:
https://d1.awsstatic.com/whitepapers/Security/Security Compute Services Whitepaper.pdfl The correct answer is: Generating the key pairs for the EC2 Instances using puttygen Submit your Feedback/Queries to our Experts

NEW QUESTION: 4
Nigel Holmes, CFA, is an investment manager for a small money management firm in London. All of Holmes' clients are citizens of the U.K. Holmes urges all of his clients to maintain internationally diversified portfolios. In his efforts to find undervalued securities, he is currently analyzing a Canadian company called Slapshot, Inc. Slapshot produces hockey equipment at its Canadian manufacturing facilities. About 85% of Slapshot's sales are to the U.S. market, and the remainder are domestic (i.e., in Canada). Sales have been growing at 12% per year. Last year's sales were C$68,000,000. Holmes has gathered the following market information (inflation is perfectly predictable):
* £/$ spot exchange rate = 0.8
* £/C$ spot exchange rate = 0.4
* U.K. risk-free rate = 6%
* U.K. expected inflation rate = 4%
* Canadian risk-free rate = 9%
* Canadian expected inflation rate = 7%
* U.S. risk-free rate = 4%
* U.S. expected inflation = 2%
Holmes uses the international CAPM (ICAPM) to value international investments. For Slapshot, Holmes believes that the stock's returns are sensitive to the £/C$ exchange rate. In order to apply the model, he estimates the following parameters using the £ as the base currency:
* World market risk premium = 6%
* Sensitivity of Slapshot to the world market = 1.2
* Sensitivity of Slapshot to changes in the £/C$ exchange rate = 1.4
* Holmes' expectation for the depreciation of the C$ against the £ = 2%
* The ratio of the price of the U.K. consumption basket to the Canadian consumption basket is 0.3.
Holmes adds Slapshot stock to several client portfolios at a purchase price of C$ 100. One year later, the stock is trading at C$ 122. There were no dividend payments during the year.
Consider the current U.S. dollar to C$ ($/C$) spot exchange rate. Suppose that after one year, the nominal spot $/C$ exchange rate is 0.350. The most likely impact on Slapshot's valuation from the $/C$ exchange rate change is the:
A. value of the C$ has not changed in real terms, so there should be no real impact on the firm's valuation.
B. C$ has appreciated in real terms, and the firm will be less competitive in the U.S. market, leading to a lower valuation.
C. C$ has depreciated in real terms, and the firm will be more competitive in the U.S. market, leading to a higher valuation.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Since the beginning-of-period $/C$ spot exchange rate is not given directly, we must calculate it from the
£/$ and £/C$ quotes. Dividing £/C$ by £/$ gives a rate for the $/C$ exchange rate of 0.5. Next we need to determine whether there was any real change in the exchange rate during the year. Inflation in the United States is 2%, and inflation in Canada is 7% (remember that inflation is perfectly predictable). The 5% inflation differential means that to maintain parity, the C$ must depreciate by 5%. If the C$ depreciates by
5%, the new exchange rate would be 0.5(1 - 0.05) = 0.475. Since the end-of-period rate is less than what was expected given the inflation differential, the real value of the C$ has decreased. Hence, the firm should have a higher value because it is primarily an exporter, and exporters are helped by real domestic currency depreciation. (Study Session 18, LOS 66.e,m)